Perfect subjunctive or Future perfect

Hi, Adrianus and Calvinist,

Let me just say that although I side almost 100% with Calvinist on the substance of what you have been discussing, I think that you are BOTH awesome.

And Adrianus, I love the fact that you write so much Latin. I don’t know ANYONE who is as committed to using Ancient Greek as a living language as much as you are with Latin. I do know that Latin folks are way ahead of us Greek folks in this regard. I’d love to get to the point where I can do with Greek what you do with Latin.

ευχαριστῶ υμιν, αριστε φιλοι!

Keep it up.

MARKUS LOCUTUS, CAUSA FINATA!

Well said Markos. Adrianus, I have to admit that admire your persistence in using Latin in your posts, something that I am not fluent enough to do. Although I strongly disagree with you on these issues, I acknowledge your excellent proficiency and knowledge of Latin. I guess we’ll just have to “agree to disagree”.

I do want to say that I’ve enjoyed this discussion. It forces me to think things through, and actually inspires new insights and ideas. Hopefully it has done the same for you Adrianus, and everyone else who has engaged in this discussion or observed it without commenting.

To bring things back full circle:

Calvinist and many others say that ceperint can be understood as either perfect subjunctive or future perfect with no significant difference in meaning.

Adrianus and many others say that ceperint is only one form, and that form can and should be distinguished as it makes a significant difference.

Both camps have presented their cases…

You decide.

Once again this is inaccurate. I have said that the word “ceperint” can be understood as either perfect subjunctive or future perfect and that there is a difference in meaning (because both Laura and you claimed there was no difference in meaning). I also said that how significant one feels the difference to be is another matter. But in the particular sentence given I said there was no basis for reading a perfect subjunctive. Laura said that there was, she eventually found evidence, and I accepted that.

Denuò non accuratè dicis. Hoc scripsi: ut praeteritum perfectum tempus subjunctivo modo ut futurum perfectum tempus indicativo modo “ceperint” verbum intellegi potest and mutat sensus inter tempora (quod et tu et Laura nullum significationis discrimen exstare adsumpsistis. Quomodò id nos moveat est allia res, quod etiam dixi. In sententiâ autem primitùs citatâ nullam rationem extare ad subjunctivum modum legendum postulavi. Contradixit Laura, quae demùm indicia repperit, quod tunc audivi.

Sadly, my proficiency and knowledge are far from excellent, but I do believe that you have to use a language to further your understanding of it in a deeper way. Practice may reveal what just talking about a language may not.
Latinitas mea excellens non est et longè aliter, fateor, sed credo ut si callidiùs linguam intellegem vel sic facere exordiar, me oportet eâ uti. Exercitatio ostendat quod non ostendat argumentum justum.

Again, this is just woolly. I do not confound style and meaning. I say style affects meaning and you are wrong to oppose them in saying “for stylistic and not semantic reasons”. Neither do “I got a new ride” and “I bought a new car” mean the same except loosely.

“I bought a new car but I haven’t got it yet.”
“I got a new ride/car but I haven’t paid for it yet.”
“I got a new ride. It’s a hovercraft and I stole it from outside a club.”

Iterùm turbidè disputas. Sensus rationis scribendi/dicendi cum sensu significationis non misceo. Ratio scribendi/deicendi significationem movet, dicam, et tu erras qui in “aut ratio aut significatio” dicendo eas mutuò opponas. Nec anglicè synonyma haec nisi abusivè loqueris: “I bought a new car” et “I got a new ride”.

“Autocinetum novum emi at eum adhùc non habeo.”
“Autocinetum novum emi/acquisivi at ei adhùc non pependi.”
“Novam vecturam acquisivi. Scapha hoveriana est quam ab extrà consociationem sustuli.”

I would think that if that day came several hundred years ago, it would be a settled issue by now. So why do so many still frown on the construction?

And even if I were to grant that the usage is now accepted, that would only reinforce the argument that English forced pronoun gender such that a workaround was felt necessary.

I agree that it was settled naturally. Modern grammarians refuse to let it be settled. The common person already uses “they” as a genderless third-person singular… and that would be the case for everyone were it not for grammarians insisting that it can’t be done.

It has nothing to do with grammarians, at least on my part. The grammatical strictures on dangling participles, for instance, are “pedantry up with which I shall not put,” and it is also common for me to boldly split infinitives where they’ve never been split before. I just think that using “they” as a singular sounds wrong. Always have.

  1. When a person uses “they” as a singular, he sounds odd.

  2. When a person uses “they” as a singular, they sound odd.

Do you seriously think that the 2nd example sounds as natural as the first? The construction is stilted, and is only used as much as it is because of the fear of being considered un-PC by using “he” as the generic singular.

I agree with Lex here. I think that “they” as a singular pronoun sounds a little unnatural to any English speaker, educated or not. The aversion to it isn’t only because of grammarians, “they” is naturally understood as plural to any native speaker and that has to be forcibly overridden which feels awkward. Either way, the point that languages force distinctions is true. There is no way to describe a subject doing something without picking one and only one tense, excluding all other tenses. The present tense can be used for a generic statement, but if used for a particular event it will force it’s time element back onto the action of the verb. English speakers can’t escape time when describing events, not in any natural and convenient way. My original point was that just because a speaker chooses a tense does not mean he felt the time/aspect element of that tense to be relevant to his message. Indo-European languages do not allow a speaker to choose whether he thinks those elements are important or not. The only verbs available that connect to a subject are ALL marked for time/aspect. This is both a pro and a con. Indo-European verbs encode a lot of information into them, more than speakers care about at times, but the speaker can’t redesign the verbal system as he’s speaking and remove the extra “baggage” that he doesn’t need… so a particular tense is uttered or written, and then we can argue for ages about why exactly the author picked that particular tense and not another one, which sometimes may be as relevant as asking why someone picked the particular shirt they are wearing for that day. To which they might reply, “I don’t know… I just grabbed one out of the closet. I didn’t really care what color it was, I just grabbed one so I could get on with my day.”

Demonstrably not true. OK, it sounds unnatural to you but it doesn’t sound unnatural to me and to plenty of others. And many major English writers (Dickens, Austin, etc.) use it in the singular fluently and easily. Read more and talk to people more and it won’t seem unnatural to you, unless you’re bound by theory.
Clarè falsum est quod dicis. Tibi usus non innatus est, mihi autem natus et multis aliis, qui sic cotidianè facilè facundèque loquimur et eundem saepè usum apud scriptores majores, ut Austin ut Dickens et sequentes, legimus. Plùs legi, plùs aliis colloquere et ille usus naturalis sonabit nisi theoria te compescet.

Ok, fair enough. I can’t know how it feels/sounds to other people. This points to something else though, which is that we can’t know how a particular person intends a certain tense to be understood, or even exactly what that construction means semantically to that person, which is exactly what a lot of grammar/syntax discussions try to discover. Also, my point still stands that languages through their systems of grammar can force more distinctions and semantic information than a speaker finds relevant. All of this to say that lengthy discussions about why a certain tense is used or what exactly an author intends with a certain tense or word can be very subjective, and do not necessarily lead us to a better understanding of what the author “means”. Again, we keep arguing the same points. We’ll be beatin’ this horse 'til the cows come home! :smiley:

Change “a person” to “anyone” or “someone,” and it sounds perfectly natural to any English speaker:

When anyone/someone uses “they” as a singular, they do it without violation.

Notice what Adrianus copied over from the dictionary: “Often used in reference to a singular noun made universal by every, any, no, etc…”

Well, no, it doesn’t sound perfectly natural to any English speaker, because I am one, and it doesn’t sound natural to me. It really doesn’t. I’ll concede that it may sound natural to some, if you will do me the courtesy of not telling me how it sounds to me or “any” other English speaker.

Hi Jason, I’ll agree with you that to a number of speakers it may sound perfectly fine. But the reason I used that example was for a larger purpose, which is to show that languages force semantic information (gender, tense, etc.) that other languages do not. This is a basic structural difference between languages.

Consider this sentence:

Conveni amicum.

I met a friend.

I think that most would say the English translation is good, and I’m assuming most would translate it almost identically to mine. The interesting thing is, we lost semantic information in the translation, which English could’ve maintained:

I met a male friend.

This translation better reflects the semantic information in the Latin, but generally speaking this would be omitted. Why? Because we all recognize that the masculine form is required by the structure of Latin which reveals gender by default. To avoid gender in Latin you must take a roundabout way of saying amicum which would itself not be neutral but would rather reveal that you were making an effort to hide the gender. In this sense, Latin cannot do what English can in this case. Even if the Latin author doesn’t care to reveal the gender it will still be expressed, unless he purposely wants to avoid the gender and uses a circumlocution to avoid it, which would not be perceived as really neutral, but rather as an attempt to conceal information, since amicus is the standard, default word to express friend.

On the other hand, the English version has added semantic information by way of a noun determiner, a, which is required in this construction. The extra semantic meaning carried by a/the can be expressed in Latin, but by default this is not necessary… in English it is.

Immensely important point: The structure/grammar of a language doesn’t only reveal what can be expressed, but more importantly, what by default must be expressed. Now it is true that languages can use circumlocutions to get around some of these impositions, but their usage will be noticed by another native speaker as exactly that: an avoidance of the default system in order to hide some information.

Conveni benevolentem.

This is what you suggested earlier, Adrianus. Wouldn’t this be perceived as a deliberate attempt to conceal the gender of the friend, rather than merely a neutral word like English friend? It’s technically an adjective functioning as a substantive: I met a friendly-person. I would think that a Roman wife would not like this answer to her question, quo ivisti? She would probably think he was avoiding amicam.

The more important point, which is what my first translation was meant to show, is that just because semantic information is present in a nominal or verb, it does not necessarily follow that the author wants to express this or finds it important at all. It could also be pointed out that the verb conveni was by necessity a particular tense conveying particular time/aspect information. All of this is default semantic information in Latin. The system needs this information fed to it on a regular basis, even if it’s more than the author/speaker really cares about. We don’t notice this with the verb because English is structurally similar when it comes to verbs. If we were translating into a language which by default leaves verbs timeless and aspect-less we would probably ask ourselves the question: Is the author trying to point out the time/aspect? Or is it merely expressed because Latin requires it? In a very fundamental way, this is the entire reason why translation can be so difficult, as these same principles apply to the semantic field of individual words as much as they do to the overall structure of the language. For instance, English makes a default distinction between love and like, something that some languages do not. English distinguishes between technical automobile and everyday car, while other languages may have one word to cover the entire space, technical and everyday.

May I ask where you’re from, that people do not use “they” as a common third-person singular pronoun? I know that in Missouri, it was perfectly common. Teachers railed against it and tried to convince everyone that it wasn’t proper, but it was found in both literature and in the common tongue. I’ll agree that you cannot supplant any and all “he/she” with “they” (as was shown above), but when a sentence is generalized, it is definitely a natural part of the language – and I would think it’s universal. So, I’m curious to know where you hail from.

In movies we often see “they” used in what’s called the “pronoun game,” when you don’t want to reveal the gender of the person that you met up with. This is especially true in GLBT-oriented films where identities are sometimes kept hidden on purpose.

Are you saying that to your ears the following sentences sound unnatural?

“Anyone who shows up at the door will be admitted, but they must be able to provide their identification if requested.”

“I met a really nice person on my way home, and they helped me carry my groceries.”

Both sound natural to me. I’m curious if they don’t to you and where your English comes from.

Regards,
Jai

“They” for “he/she” is certainly very common in British, to the point that its use is unremarkable, at least in speech.

Of course it’s not ubiquitous and an individual may choose not to use it - but that’s their choice…:wink:

Immensely ridiculous, rather, if that’s where it takes you.
Immò, perabsurdus est hic modus ratiocinandi.

Adrianus, it is very easy to shake your fist at God and declare, “Gravity doesn’t exist”, but you haven’t shown how my examples are wrong. English marks time on verbs by default, Chinese doesn’t. English distinguishes singularity/plurality in nouns by default, Chinese doesn’t. Thats my point. I don’t understand why you’re afraid to admit this. I’m not trying to dissilusion you about the beautiful system that is Latin. Maybe you think that I’m trying to say Latin is inferior to English or Chinese. I’m not. I find Latin to be the most beautiful language, that’s my opinion. But I understand that other languages can communicate some ideas or shades of meaning more easily than Latin can. To deny this is to say that languages are all identical, which is ridiculous. Are you saying that languages only differ in vocabulary? There is no structural difference between languages?! The structure of a language (grammar) is the system used to connect ideas through relationships and express different meanings (time, aspect, gender, plurality, subject, passive experience of action, etc.) If we admit that languages are different grammatically, then we are admitting that different languages highlight different aspects of meaning. Do all the languages of the world have the same number of tenses? The same number of moods? No. So even though the speakers can and do understand these distinctions, the system of the language (its grammar) may not explicitly make these distinctions. I’m beginning to think that either you’re just arguing for the sake of argument, you’re not understanding me because I haven’t expressed myself clearly, or maybe even you’re sensitive to a perceived attack on Latin. I’m not attacking Latin, I’m trying my best to use examples to illustrate my point, and I don’t like to argue for no reason. I really find it hard to believe that you would deny such an obvious reality. It’s one of the main challenges in studying a foreign language. It’s easy to say “no”, please explain what you disagree with.

The word of the day over at my Verbosum blog (http://verbosum.blogspot.com/) happens to be tuus (I’m writing up the post right now), and in the midst of collecting proverbs and says with forms of tuus in them, I came across this one, where I think - for contextual reasons - I’d argue that fuerit here needs to be perfect subjunctive, and not future perfect, since a temporal sequence of events does not really apply, even though the apodosis is a future indicative. Just a thought. This whole conversation has certainly made me hyperaware of perfect subjunctives! :slight_smile:

Si sapiens fuerit animus tuus, gaudebit tecum cor meum.

This is from the Biblical Book of Proverbs (23:15) , and the Greek has an aorist subjunctive:

ἐὰν σοφὴ γένηταί σου ἡ καρδία εὐφρανεῖς καὶ τὴν ἐμὴν καρδίαν

Yes, I think it makes more sense as a perfect subjunctive as well. Interesting sidenote, the Greek ties the two parts together with the same word καρδια, while the Latin version switches from animus to cor. I think I like the Greek better.

Laura, you have a great blog, I was just checking it out. I noticed you used one of my favorite quotes:

Ubi thesaurus tuus, ibi et cor.

I was definitely feeling that last night while working on my resume: Ubi est thesaurus meus?! :laughing: