Why accusative in μοῖραν δ ̓ οὔ τινά φημι πεφυγμένον ἔμμεναι ἀνδρῶν ?

Greek Homeric Greek and Early Greek Poetry
1

Iliad 6.488 (Hector to Andromache):

μοῖραν δ ̓ οὔ τινά φημι πεφυγμένον ἔμμεναι ἀνδρῶν,
οὐ κακὸν οὐδὲ μὲν ἐσθλόν, ἐπὴν τὰ πρῶτα γένηται.

Why do we have the accusative for τινά … οὐ κακὸν οὐδὲ μὲν ἐσθλόν? I would have thought you would use the nominative with εἰμί. Is the accusative used when εἰμί = “there is?” I guess it’s true that in English, I’d say “there’s me escaping fate,” not “there’s I escaping fate.”

2

It’s a regular acc.&infin. construction with φημι: I say there’s no-one who has escaped fate. (πεφυγμένον is used transitively despite its passive form.)

3

I see, thanks, that makes sense. I was interpreting ἔμμεναι incorrectly. It’s an infinitive, so this is like “I consider him to be honest,” or “I consider no one to be above the law.”

4

What might have thrown you is the use of perfect participle + present infinitve of εἰμι in place of perfect infinitive (πεφυχθαι in this case). I suppose it’s comparable to the 3rd pl. of the perfect passive, πεφυγμενοι εἰσι, rather than the mouthful “πεφυγνται”.
Cf. Thucydides 6.29, where perfect participle + ἠν stands in for pluperfect.