Why a sing. verb with plur. subject? ἕως ἂν τὰ ἀμερῆ στῇ

In Posterior Analytics, bk B chap 19, Aristotle has this:

πάλιν ἐν τούτοις ἵσταται, ἕως ἂν τὰ ἀμερῆ στῇ καὶ τὰ καθόλου

Translators read the underlined text as

until what has no parts makes a stand

But τὰ ἀμερῆ is plural and στῇ is singular, right?

Why the mismatch?

Or is ἂν τὰ ἀμερῆ the preposition ἀνά with an accusative τὰ ἀμερῆ and then an impersonal subject-less στῇ?

until, up to the things without parts, there is a stand

(This odd ἵστημι is Aristotle’s way of saying a concept gets established.)

It looks to me like the mismatch is just because in Attic it was normal for a neuter plural subject to take a singular verb.