In English, I hear a small difference between “of the A and the B” and “of the A and B.” Is there a similar difference in Ancient Greek?
Aristotle has τῶν ἐσχάτων εἰσὶ καὶ τῶν καθ’ ἕκαστον (NE 1143b3). I want to know if (as most readers assume) ἐσχάτων and καθ’ ἕκαστον are two ways to refer to the same things—that particular things are ultimate and vice versa. Or if (as, on contextual grounds, I suspect) he is talking about something true of ultimate things (τῶν ἐσχάτων) and also true of particular things (τῶν καθ’ ἕκαστον)—that there are particular things and, separately, there are ultimate things, and this is true of both.
Does the repetition of the article τῶν support my suspicion?
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