verb ending contraction's impact on accent

My apologies for this probably elementary question: why is the imperfect of, say, νοσέω accented as if its ending, ει, was a simple diphthong (ἐνόσει)? Does not the fact that it is a contraction of two syllables (ε + ει), the last of which is long, demand that the accent be on the contracted one (*ἐνοσέει > *ἐνοσεῖ)?

contraction of two syllables (ε + ει)

This is the imperfect, so it’s a contraction of (ε + ε).

Oh, thanks! Shame on me. What a glitch…