I was wondering if there is a rough rule-of-thumb for distinguishing between “quod” when used as pronoun, and when it is used as “because = quia, quoniam”.
Today I bumped into this:
Ibo ut, erus quod imperavit, Alcumenae nuntiem…
The commas seem to have been placed by the autor of my textbook, since the original Plautus doesn’t seem to have them…
I translated as:
I will go so – because the master has ordered – I would announce to Alcumena.
(Word order to keep the original word order… I would much have preferred to have said “Because the master has so ordered, I will go so I would announce to Alcumena”).
When my solution in the textbook translated that “quod” as pronoun:
I will go so – what the master has ordered – I would announce to Alcumena.
(Again, word order not being my favorite, but by now I realize that authors of antiquity play all this much with word order, too much for my liking!).
Is there something inherently wrong with translating “quod” as because and not as “quod” from “qui, quae, quod”…
I can think of one reason: not having it as pronoun leaves my verb “nuntiare” without a direct object (i.e. announce WHAT???)… This, however, doesn’t strike me as a huge issue… Anyone? Comments? Disagreement?
If I were to say:
“Ibo ut, quod erus imperavit, Alcumenae illud nuntiem”…
Would that take care of both issues and allow me to freely translate “quod” as “because”…
Once, on this forum, earlier in my studies, I had asked about:
“Quod est ante pedes, nemo spectat”.
… whose most natural translation is “That which is before (their) feet, no one sees”… Would it be too far-fetched to interpret it as “BECAUSE it/he/she is before (their) feet, no one sees it/her/him”.
Give me some advice so I no longer confuse the uses of “quod”, please!…