Use of genitive article

Greek Koine and Biblical and Medieval Greek
1

1Macc. 3:44
ἠθροίσθη ἡ συναγωγὴ τοῦ εῖναι ἑτοίμους εἰς πόλεμον …
Is the use of the genitive article here “of it” denoting a neuter situation? In other words, how does TOU function here?
Thanks, Dave M

2

Please disregard this post.

3

τοῦ with the infinitive is a genitive of purpose. It’s a classical construction but not widely used without prepositions such as ἕνεκα. Accusative ἑτοίμους presumably because that’s the usual case with the subject and predicate of infinitives.

3 Maccabees is I think a very interesting book both for its narrative content and for its elaborately mannered style. There was an earlier thread about it on this board.

Edit. Sorry, you were referring to bk.1 (which I’ve never read), not bk.3 (which unlike bks.1-2 has nothing to do with Maccabees).