Hi all, I am still fairly new to learning this wonderful language, so apologies in advance! I recently came across the verb ποθέω.
I see that the Imperfect form, πόθεον, does not possess the typical epsilon augment.
Very curious to know why this is and how common this is with other verbs. Is the general sense of the tense changed because of the absence of the augment, or what am I missing?
Did you see it on Wiktionary, perhaps? I notice it only gives the Homeric forms, where the augment is regularly missing. Liddell-Scott cites a few Attic forms with an augment. But judging from the quotations, it may be a word more often encountered in Homeric.