pmda
September 30, 2015, 6:03pm
1
The following sentence from Orberg’s adapted Livy is giving me some trouble:
Tarquinius’ wife is egging him on to seize the throne (I think):
Di te Penates et patris imago et domus regia et in domo regale solium et nomen Tarquinium creat vocatque regem .
Orberg explains this as follows: di Penates et …et nomen T. te regem creat .
*** It seems to me like list of subjects but that there is another object besides te ***
Ignore the above …
The Penates (gods), [your] father’s ghost, the palace and, within the palace [domo ] both the royal throne and the Tarquinian name made you [te ] king.
I’m assuming that where a list of subjects occurs that the last, if it’s singular, governs the number of the verb - creat .
Is there a clear way of telling whether regale qualifies domo or solium ? I’m thinking it qualifies solium .
Do I have the above right?
I think you’ve read it right, although I’m not sure why the verb is singular. regale , however, can only go with solium since 3rd declension adjectives have their ablatives in i , meaning regale is only nom/acc neuter: https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/regale#Latin
bedwere
September 30, 2015, 7:04pm
3
The ablative singular for regalis, e would be regali. Hence, regale could only apply to solium.
Qimmik
September 30, 2015, 7:17pm
5
Allen & Greenough sec. 317c:
c. When a verb belongs to two or more subjects separately, it often agrees with one and is understood with the others:—
“ intercēdit M. Antōnius Q. Cassius tribūnī plēbis ” (B. C. 1.2) , Mark Antony and Quintus Cassius, tribunes of the people, interpose.
“hōc mihi et Peripatēticī et vetus Acadēmia concēdit ” (Acad. 2.113) , this both the Peripatetic philosophers and the Old Academy grant me.
http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.04.0001%3Apart%3D2%3Asection%3D5%3Asubsection%3D2%3Asmythp%3D317
creat is present tense.