Okay, this is something I’ve wondered about for years.
Statistically, some verbs which are transitive in English are intransitive in Latin, and vice versa.
I’ve always assumed that Latin had more transitive verbs than English but assumptions are dangerous.
Has anyone sat down and worked it out based on a sample of classical and later Latin?
Both Latin and English have not only transitive verbs and intransitive verbs but also verbs which have both transitive and intransitive applications. The same is true of many other languages. Thanks to its mottled history, and adoption of words from various different languages (some Latinate, others not), English has more of each kind than Latin does.
Isn’t that enough? If you want to learn Latin you won’t much care about the statistics. You’ll be too busy learning the language.