Hello,
I am relatively new to Greek (less than a year of study) so forgive me if this is obvious. I was reading Plato’s Crito and found myself stumped by this line (specifically what ᾗ is doing): ἢ πείθειν αὐτὴν ᾗ τὸ δίκαιον πέφυκε. Steadman’s commentary reads ᾗ: inf. ἀπόλλυμι - which I can only assume is a typo? My initial understanding of it as a relative pronoun gave me a general instrumental sense: ‘or persuade her with what is just by nature’. However, this just doesn’t feel right. Am I missing something?
Here’s the full passage for context:
[…] ἢ οὕτως εἶ σοφὸς ὥστε λέληθέν σε
ὅτι μητρός τε καὶ πατρὸς καὶ τῶν ἄλλων προγόνων ἁπάντων
τιμιώτερόν ἐστιν πατρὶς καὶ σεμνότερον καὶ ἁγιώτερον
καὶ ἐν μείζονι μοίρᾳ καὶ παρὰ θεοῖς καὶ παρ’ ἀνθρώποις
τοῖς νοῦν ἔχουσι, καὶ σέβεσθαι δεῖ καὶ μᾶλλον ὑπείκειν καὶ
θωπεύειν πατρίδα χαλεπαίνουσαν ἢ πατέρα, καὶ ἢ πείθειν ἢ
ποιεῖν ἃ ἂν κελεύῃ, καὶ πάσχειν ἐάν τι προστάττῃ παθεῖν
ἡσυχίαν ἄγοντα, ἐάντε τύπτεσθαι ἐάντε δεῖσθαι, ἐάντε εἰς
πόλεμον ἄγῃ τρωθησόμενον ἢ ἀποθανούμενον, ποιητέον
ταῦτα, καὶ τὸ δίκαιον οὕτως ἔχει, καὶ οὐχὶ ὑπεικτέον οὐδὲ
ἀναχωρητέον οὐδὲ λειπτέον τὴν τάξιν, ἀλλὰ καὶ ἐν πολέμῳ
καὶ ἐν δικαστηρίῳ καὶ πανταχοῦ ποιητέον ἃ ἂν κελεύῃ ἡ
πόλις καὶ ἡ πατρίς, ἢ πείθειν αὐτὴν ᾗ τὸ δίκαιον πέφυκε·
(Cri. 51a7-c)
Many thanks