The Sound of Greek, by Prof. Stanford is a book with a few voice fragments on tape. Does any one know if I can find these sound records on the net?
Thank you,
cordially,
Philippus Moerus
i don’t think the clips are on the net. it’s a good book though: the reference about demosthenes intentionally mispronouncing the accent of a word (to make the whole audience yell out the word correctly, which was a word accusing demosthenes’ adversary philip) is in that book i think… cheers, chad. 
Thank you,
I know there is only a little chance this is on the net, but I can only hope. Our tape has been played very often and the sound of Greek does’nt soud as Greek any more! So I would like to have these fragments on the net to have an improved quality again to amude many students.
Dum spiramus, speramus,
Thnx,
Moerus
Χαίρετε,
Some of you might know me, I have written some articles in the past. Hello again then.
There have been many theories out there about the phonology of the ancient Greek language. I am sure the language has changed through the time but how much?
<<ΠΟΛΕΜΟΣ ΘΑ ΕΛΘΕΙ ΔΩΡΙΚΟΣ ΚΑΙ ΛΙΜΟΣ ΜΑΖΙ ΜΕ ΑΥΤΟΝ>>
That was a prophesy of the Delphic oracle for the Athenaeans. When the Peloponnesian war started the Athenaeans were debating on whether ΛΙΜΟΣ is ΛΟΙΜΟΣ or ΛΙΜΟΣ, since the prophesy was oral.
ΛΟΙΜΟΣ = illness, disease
ΛΙΜΟΣ = hungriness
That shows that the ΟΙ, atleast at the time of the war, was pronounced as I, just like in modern Greek. Finally, the time and the facts showed that it was ΛΟΙΜΟΣ.
I am sure we will find many more if we search. Also, we shouldn’t be based on Latin to reconstruct the phonology, even thought it was the closest language to Greek and borrowed many Greek words. Some of them remained the same… Phrater Gk - Frater Lt and some other changed a bit… Eletron Gk - Electrum Lt.
Ok, thank you very much. But I already know all about Greek pronounciation. The thing is: the book I mentioned comes with a tape. But tapes get used, so I wondered if someone had this on the net, then I could put it on cd, cause the tape we have now at our university becomes useless,
so if anyone knows a site where I can find these …
Thank you.
If you want to know about ancient pronounciation, Allen, Vox Graeca you must consult (said the oracle at Delphi). This is the standard work till now,
thank you all,
cordially,
me.
Χαίρετε,
Ok, thank you very much. But I already know all about Greek pronounciation.
You seem very optimistic… Nobody knows everything about anything and as Socrates said… “ΕΝ ΟΙΔΑ ΟΤΙ ΟΥΔΕΝ ΟΙΔΑ”.
Then why do you call yourself Pangnosis? 
First of all, here’s the oracle in Ancient Greek (Thuc. 2. 54,3): ἥξει δωριακὸς πόλεμος καὶ λοιμὸς ἅμ’ αὐτωῖ
I must admit that this passage suggests that there’s a resemblance between the i and oi. But there are other words, borrowed from the Greek by Latin (and not, as Lat. frater / Gr. phrater, with a common Proto-Indoeuropean ancestor) that show ‘oe’ not ‘i’, e.g. Phoebus. See Allen, Vox Graeca p.p. 80-1. I’m not so sure that the diphtong ‘oi’ had become ‘i’ by Thucydides’ time.
Socrates, Socrates, Socrates, …
I know he said that, or better, that others presume he said that. But I don’t think he was very smart! All he did was asking questions, cause he didn’t know veryy much. And if someone knew something, his purpose was only to tease them! What a mean character!
If you say that the only thing you know is that you know nothing, then how do you know this? This is really an aporia!
If they didn’t kill them, I would have done it! 
And you are an adept to such a guy?
Well, well, well, …
Χαίρετε,
Then why do you call yourself Pangnosis?
It has nothing to do with that. First of all I like the god “Pan” and secondly I consider gnosis-knowledge very important.
I must admit that this passage suggests that there’s a resemblance between the i and oi. But there are other words, borrowed from the Greek by Latin (and not, as Lat. frater / Gr. phrater, with a common Proto-Indoeuropean ancestor) that show ‘oe’ not ‘i’, e.g. Phoebus. See Allen, Vox Graeca p.p. 80-1. I’m not so sure that the diphtong ‘oi’ had become ‘i’ by Thucydides’ time.
That is why I said we shouldn’t be based on Latin to reconstruct the Hellenic phonology or atleast take it as it is. We don’t really know the Latin phonology either.
First of all there is not a proto-indoeuropean language. Even if OI sounded as OE back then… for sure OS didn’t sound as US. That is why I said we should be careful.
The sound changes from language to language. Example… the Hellenic word ΨΥΧΟΛΟΓΙΑ in english sounds as “Sycology”.
Socrates, Socrates, Socrates, …
I know he said that, or better, that others presume he said that. But I don’t think he was very smart! All he did was asking questions, cause he didn’t know veryy much. And if someone knew something, his purpose was only to tease them! What a mean character!
If you say that the only thing you know is that you know nothing, then how do you know this? This is really an aporia!
If they didn’t kill them, I would have done it!
And you are an adept to such a guy?Well, well, well, …
Your aporia doesn’t sound very good… and that’s because you try to understand his quote literally… As for his character really I am not the one who will critisise such a man. All I know is that he is accepted as a wise man all over the world but even if he wasn’t; the quote I presented will do for me now. 
Something about the Erasmic phonology of the Hellenic language. He claims that “Η” sounds as “ee” and “Ω” sounds as “oo”. To me that sounds stupid. Based on the speaking I think it is the dilects that has changed the H to E or the opposite. Also, the word ΑΚΟΥΩ based on Erasmos would be pronounced as AKOOYOO which sounds like a Chimpanzee speaking.
The truth is that I haven’t read much about the phonology of the Hellenic language but as Hellene I can be the “Devil’s advocate” so we can get closer to the reconstruction. I do believe though that there has been a change…
I refuse to reply on such things, pangnosis!
The question I asked was about one book! And not about the pronounciation of ancient Greek: I studied on this subject and know almost every thing about it. The Erasmian theory does not seem the way the ancients spoke. But we are almost certain of the way the ancients did speak! There are evidents for that. Also for Latin we know the pronounciation of the ancient Romans. And the comparasion between this two languages can be used to know the correct pronounciation of both. This is not always the best method, but for some elements it is. Classical philology has already done many investigations on this subject and you can find good publications about that, I suggest you read them,
enjoy your lecture,
Moerus (12 years of investigation on the subject)
Trying to avoid the flames …
How did Erasmus pronouns oo and ee? In Erasmus’s day (had he been English) oo probably would have sounded roughly as we now sound “oh” (but a little more open) and ee probably sounded roughly as we now sound “eh” (but a little more open). So, for Erasmus (had he been etc), AKOOUOO would be something like akohuoh, which doesn’t seem a million miles away from modern reconstructed pronunciation, though no doubt E was wrong in many respects.
Of course I have no way at all of knowing how Erasmus pronounced these combinations of letters, nor do I know how someone from the Netherlands would pronounce them now, let alone then. Perhaps you do. But trying to get to ancient Greek pronunciation by way of 15th century Dutch (?) seems … circuitous.
I think the existence of PIE is no point of discussion, but since you doubt it: how would you explain the similarities between the languages that others call IE?
There’s an obvious difference between the morphemes phoeb- and -us: -us also has a grammatical function, and is therefore more limited in its phonology than the root phoeb-. BTW: what part of Latin phonology is still unknown?
Ptolemaios
Χαίρετε,
Ulpianus, I don’t agree with the Erasmic phonology. I think you didn’t understand that.
E wouldn’t be eh but if E is pronounced as E today, then maybe in some words E was being pronounced as Ee.
Ptolemaios, I like your nick >,
I think the existence of PIE is no point of discussion, but since you doubt it: how would you explain the similarities between the languages that others call IE?
There is only a limited amount of words that are consider IE.
First of all, the words Δήμος and Ψήφος, both Hellenic, which considered IE mean Demos (I don’t agree with the translation borough) and vote respectively. Which other nation other than the Hellenes had Demos’s and political system with votes? There are other examples that don’t come into my mind now. Also, the word Magus, of Persian origin, that passed through Hellenic as Magos and then the Romans borrowed it from the Hellenes as Magus is another example. Even nowdays… we see a lot of examples. The common words are a result of the exchange of cultures between various civilisations. Look in how many languages exists the word Φιλοσοφία because they cannot translate it. That is why all these nations had common words…
I didn’t say that the Latin phonology is unknown, I just said that I have heard various theories about it. One is for sure… it seems that it has changed as well.