When this is added to the end of a word it adds a syllable. Do the usual rules apply as to which syllable receives the accent?
It’s a contentious point, with one side saying yes and another saying that the accent is invariably moved to the penult.
For what it’s worth, a member here made a very convincing case, using the first book of the Aeneid, that it does indeed follow the regular rules. If I had time right now, I’d dig it up…
I asked this exact question not too long ago, and I got some very good responses.
On the other side of the coin, this is the thread to which I was referring.