Pharr paragraph 660 reads;“Observe that there are no words used regularly in Homeric Greek with the meaning of the English article,…”
Is this because Homer writes poetry or is this the case also in prose of that time?
Thanks.
[quote author=Bert de Haan link=board=2;threadid=213;start=0#1054 date=1057357355]
Pharr paragraph 660 reads;“Observe that there are no words used regularly in Homeric Greek with the meaning of the English article,…”
Is this because Homer writes poetry or is this the case also in prose of that time?
[/quote]
There isn’t any prose of that time, so we don’t know. Herodotus, the first producer of prose in a dialect similar to Homer’s, comes 300-400 years after Homer, and there [size=150]ὁ, ἡ, τό