Tenses and Voice of Greek Words

Plutarch, Lives, “Pericles,” chapter 13, section 1: “Ἀναβαινόντων δὲ τῶν ἔργων ὑπερηφάνων μὲν μεγέθει, μορφῇ δ᾿ ἀμιμήτων καὶ χάριτι, τῶν δημιουργῶν ἁμιλλωμένων ὑπερβάλλεσθαι τὴν δημιουργίαν τῇ καλλιτεχνίᾳ, μάλιστα θαυμάσιον ἦν τὸ τάχος. ὧν γὰρ ἕκαστον ᾤοντο πολλαῖς διαδοχαῖς καὶ ἡλικίαις μόλις ἐπὶ τέλος ἀφίξεσθαι, ταῦτα πάντα μιᾶς ἀκμῇ πολιτείας ἐλάμβανε τὴν συντέλειαν.”

Loeb Classical Library, Bernadotte Perrin’s translation, volume 3: “So then the works arose, no less towering in their grandeur than inimitable in the grace of their outlines, since the workmen eagerly strove to surpass themselves in the beauty of their handicraft. And yet the most wonderful thing about them was the speed with which they rose. Each one of them, men thought, would require many successive generations to complete it, but all of them were fully completed in the heyday of a single administration.”

Is the word ἀφίξεσθαι in the passive voice? Does the phrase “ἐπὶ τέλος ἀφίξεσθαι” literally mean “come to an end” or “be brought to an end”?

Is the word ἐλάμβανε in the past tense and passive voice? Or is it in the present tense and active voice? Does the phrase “ἐλάμβανε τὴν συντέλειαν” literally mean “reached the end” or “was brought to the end”?

I know that others elsewhere have encouraged you similarly, but let me again emphasize that the kind of work you are doing is best supported by systematically learning the language.

Is the word ἀφίξεσθαι in the passive voice? Does the phrase “ἐπὶ τέλος ἀφίξεσθαι” literally mean “come to an end” or “be brought to an end”?

It’s an aorist middle (deponent) infinitive. “Come to an end” would be closer to the sense.

Is the word ἐλάμβανε in the past tense and passive voice? Or is it in the present tense and active voice? Does the phrase “ἐλάμβανε τὴν συντέλειαν” literally mean “reached the end” or “was brought to the end”?

Neither. It’s imperfect (which is a past tense) and active. The subject is ταῦτα πάντα, All these things… took their completion" (not good English, but I want you to get a sense of the construction).

Just in case anyone is following. εφιξεσθαι is future infinitive, not aorist, which would give quite the wrong sense.

Of course it is, good catch.

Thank you. Knowing literal meaning helps me to see beyond a non-literal translation.