Having completed the first volume of Taylor’s Greek to GCSE
I thought, as an exercise, I’d try writing a short story using just the grammar and the
core vocabulary of that book. This is the result.
Thanks for the encouragement, however, if you think the old man
spoke falsely then I have made a significant mistake in my Greek.
Why do you think the dream was not true?
Now I understand. Future can simply mean that at some point in the
future x will happen. Future can also have a strong implication
of current intention. As there is only one future in Ancient Greek
I had until now assumed that the future was ambiguous between
the two uses.
It is certainly true that what the old man says could mean
that the messenger already has the intention of killing the Archon
but I did not realize that it could only mean that.
If that is so, how in Ancient Greek does one express a simple future
which means that something will happen in the future without
any implications about any ones current intention or whether
the seeds of that future event are already implicit in the current situation?