Primo templa adeunt, ut a dis veniam petant: multas hostias Cereri, Phoebo Liberoque immolant et ante omnes Iunoni, cui coniugia curae sunt [res mihi curae (dat) est = rem curo].
…? = coniugia (neut. nom. pl.) sunt cui (dat) curae (dat): marriages are to her care…? Si verus est, cur ‘cui’ sed non ‘suae’: '…et ante omnes Iunoni, suae curae coniugia sunt..?
Sed quid sacrificia mulierem furentem iuvant?
‘quid’ : Interrog. Pron. Neut. Nom. Sing. 'How will sacrifices help a mad woman?..
Nunc per mediam urbem Aeneam secum ducit et opes suas urbemque novam ostentat. Loqui incipit - et in medio sermone consistit. Nunc novum convivium hospiti suo parat, iterumque labores Troianorum audire poscit. Postquam media nocte digressi sunt ceteri, ea sola in domo vacua maeret lectoque Aeneae relicto incumbit: illum absentem et audit et videt.
‘…illum absentem et audit et videt’ (in mentem suam?).
Aeneas autem una cum Didone venatum ire parat. Prima luce regina progreditur Poenis principibus comitata, ac simul Aeneas cum agmine Troianorum exit. Postquam in altos montes ventum est [ventum est (ab iis) : venerunt], caprae ferae de saxis desiliunt et cervi campos et valles cursu petunt.
Orberg’s explanation in square brackets confuses me. Does ‘Ventum est’ simply mean ‘Venerunt’ : they came into the mountains? Is it ‘est’ as opposed to ‘sunt’ for an idiomatic / idiosyncratic reason? Would a good English translation be 'after …..they were come into the mountains… perfcet tense…?
Dido et dux Troianus in eandem speluncam deveniunt, ducente Iunone. Ille dies malorum reginae atque mortis prima causa fuit.
‘reginae’ : dativus est? Dative of possession? That (was) the Queen’s unfortunate day and the first cause of her death. ?
The 3rd sing. passive forms of intransitive verbs can be used impersonally, i.e., the sense is active, not passive, but the person isn’t specified: “we” or “they” or “one” or “everyone” (like French on). ventum est is perfect passive: “they came”. itur in antiquam silvam “they went [‘go’, historical present]into an ancient forest” Aen. 6.179. itur is 3rd sing. pres. pass. of eo, used impersonally. Allen & Greenough 208d: http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.04.0001%3Asmythp%3D208
Can you identify the form of venatum?
Probably dative of reference, possible could be analyzed as genitive. “For the queen, that day was a day of woes and the original cause of her death.” Or maybe “That ws the day of the queen’s woes and the original cause of her death.”
The “double dative” construction involves (1) a “dative of reference” – generally, a person, and (2) a “dative of purpose” or function, which expresses the purpose or function that the subject of the clause serves for the person expressed by the dative of reference. Iunoni, cui coniugia curae sunt “Juno, for whom marriages are a care (or concern)”. In other words, “Juno, who concerns herself with marriages,” "“Juno, who cares about marriages”. Juno is the goddess who presides over and protects marriages.
As you can see, it can be expressed either way. BTW, the gentleman who posted that reply is one of the most knowledgeable grammarians on this board. He had to change his nickname a while back; he is now known as Hylander. He goes to a great deal of effort to make sure that what he writes is correct.
Thank you for that confirmation Aetos. I am truly indebted to your wisdom. Could you help me out with this sentence that’s found in that same chapter:
Extemplo Fama per urbes Libyae it, Fama qua non aliud malum ullum velocious est- monstrum horrendum, ingens, cui, quot sunt plumae in corpore, tot vigiles oculi sunt, tot linguae, tot aure. Haec tum vario sermone aures hominum complebat gaudens,
It’s the second sentence I’m having trouble with. What is haec referring to here? It can’t be monstrum because even though it’s a neuter noun it’s in the singular.
Also, how would vario sermone be said in natural English. It doesn’t make sense to say in a different speech. And what ablative use is it?
Haec refers back to Fama, which of course is a feminine noun. Theodore Williams translates vario sermone as “with changeful speech”. What follows gaudens in the poem is “et pariter facta atque infecta canebat” (hint: fact and fiction), so you can see why Virgil prefaces this with vario sermone. As far as the ablative is concerned, I believe it’s an ablative of means.
Here’s the sentence in the full as it is in the book:
Haec tum vario sermone aures hominum complebat gaudens, et pariter ac falsa narrabat.
So would this be a good translation for that sentence:
This (goddess? Is Fama considered a goddess) was then rejoicingly filling the ears of men with a changing discourse equally telling true and false things.
189 Haec tum multiplici populos sermone replebat
190 gaudens, et pariter facta atque infecta canebat
I would say the ablative in both cases is the ablative with a verb of filling (yes, it’s considered a thing). In your book’s paraphrase, there is no word for “true.” Pariter ac = at the same time as…"
Yes, you’re right. To boths things. I typed it in a rush at school and while in class too. As for your second statement: how else am I suppose to learn Latin other than by using Orberg’s book? Do you have any other better suggestions?