Slightly confused with a oratio obliqua

Latin Learning Latin
1

Salvete!

In the 27th chapter of Fabellæ Latinæ (one of the many ancillaries of LLPSI), the following passage reads:

Mater autem filiæ suæ se ad tabernam, quæ in oppido est, ire velle dicit…

I understood that the pronoun se indicates that she is talking about herself (The mother though said that herself…) and is the subject of velle, which apparently is the infinitive of vult (The mother said that herself wanted…), and that velle itself has an object, which is ire. The meaning, then, would be: The mother said that herself wanted to go to the store. Is this interpretation right? I got a bit confused with those infinitives, so I thought it would be good to ask you if I got it right.

2

Yes, but I noticed two things.

  1. “wants” not “wanted.”
  2. I would say it might be helpful not to confuse a hyper- literal translation with a natural translation.
    Literal: she says herself to want to go.
    Natural English: she says that she wants to go. (with se translated as a pronoun)
3

Much thanks, my friend!

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4

suae filiae seems a bit odd. "A mother tells her own daughter …”; suae seems redundant, or over-emphatic.

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5

Usually the possessive is simply omitted if we’re talking about a relative of the person we’re talking about, right? So “Puer sororem et fratrem videt” would be “The boy sees his sister and his brother”, without the need to add “suam” to “sororem” and “suum” to “fratrem”, as the girl and the other boy are siblings of the boy we’re talking about.