Result clause in X. An. 1.6.6

Greek Learning Greek
1

ἔφη δὲ Κῦρον ἄρχειν τοῦ λόγου ὧδε. παρεκάλεσα ὑμᾶς, ἄνδρες φίλοι, ὅπως σὺν ὑμῖν βουλευόμενος ὅ τι δίκαιόν ἐστι καὶ πρὸς θεῶν καὶ πρὸς ἀνθρώπων, τοῦτο πράξω περὶ Ὀρόντα τουτουί. τοῦτον γὰρ πρῶτον μὲν ὁ ἐμὸς πατὴρ ἔδωκεν ὑπήκοον εἶναι ἐμοί· ἐπεὶ δὲ ταχθείς, ὡς ἔφη αὐτός, ὑπὸ τοῦ ἐμοῦ ἀδελφοῦ οὗτος ἐπολέμησεν ἐμοὶ ἔχων τὴν ἐν Σάρδεσιν ἀκρόπολιν, καὶ ἐγὼ αὐτὸν προσπολεμῶν ἐποίησα ὥστε δόξαι τούτῳ τοῦ πρὸς ἐμὲ πολέμου παύσασθαι, καὶ δεξιὰν ἔλαβον καὶ ἔδωκα, μετὰ ταῦτα, ἔφη, Ὀρόντα, ἔστιν ὅ τι σε ἠδίκησα;

So here we seem to have a result clause (ὅπως) with the expected subjunctive (πράξω) followed by a purpose clause (ὥστε) with an infintive (παύσασθαι). My question though is why is the genitive (τοῦ) of the articular infinitive employed here? According to CGCG 51.46 “Frequent uses of the articular infinitive” this kind of construction often has purpose value, but I can’t see how that applies as I translate this “and when I fought back against him, I made it seem sensible for him to stop attacking me” or something similar. I just don’t see how to work in the idea of purpose into this. Or are there other usages for τοῦ + INF constructions?

Thanks! —Mitch

2

I’d think that the τοῦ marks the “πρὸς ἐμὲ πολέμου” as ablative — that from which he is to stop.

3

Ahhh thanks, yes. The Cambridge Lexicon says παύω in middle voice usually takes the Genitive to mean “cease from sthg.”

I should have thought to check for that. And I read πολέμου as a verb, but it’s the head of a noun phrase. :stuck_out_tongue:

4

You have it backwards. ὅπως … πράξω is a purpose clause; ὥστε … δόξαι is a result clause.

“I called you here … so that consulting with you, I might do justice …”

“I acted in such a way that it seemed best to him to stop his war against me …”

Purpose clauses generally take a subjunctive; result clauses take either an infinitive or an indicative.

The main verb of the result clause is δόξαι, not παύσασθαι, which depends on δόξαι.

5

The rule for result clauses is usually stated as infinitive for natural result and indicative for actual result, but here we have an infinitive for actual result. CGCG 46.9 explains that the infinitive is used when the ὥστε clause refers to intended result.

6

Hah yes of course Hylander, and I actually had written in the margin of my Loeb copy of Anabasis that ὅπως is a purpose clause and ὥστε is a result clause. Unfortunately when I typed up my post early this morning I got it backwards, probably because I hadn’t had enough coffee :slight_smile:

But thanks also for pointing out that it’s δόξαι that is the infinitive that goes with ὥστε, not παύσασθαι which depends on δόξαι.

7

Yes saw CGCG 46.9 too and figured that probably explained why infinitive was used here.

And FWIW appreciate very much everyone here who responds to my (sometimes dumb) questions as they do help me quite a bit on my journey upcountry with Xeno and his crew :slight_smile:

Cheers, Mitch

8

Yes Mitch, τοῦ πρὸς ἐμὲ πολέμου is an ablatival genitive, as Mark rightly understood, normal with παύσασθαι. There’s no articular infinitive. The τοῦ just serves to bind πρὸς ἐμὲ to πολέμου, “his war against me.”

9

Yep, got it. Thanks!