Thanks, all, for the pointers – much appreciated!
seneca2008 wrote
what is "τὰ "?
I see, I was mistaking it for a relative pronoun, but it’s a demonstrative or a pronoun.
Afterthought: what tense is “εἶπον”?
I was taking it for imperfect (3rd person plural), becuse that’s the only verb form I know of that ends in -ον. But now that I look at it again, I don’t really understand this, because I would think that in the imperfect it would have an augment and no stem change.
What person is “ἠτίμασεν”?
I see, I thought it was the first-person plural (aorist), but actually that doesn’t make sense. It looks to me like the aorist stem with -εν on the end, but I don’t understand that because the aorist endings should be -α, -ας, -ε, -αμεν, -ατε, αν.
So it seems like in the case of both of these verbs there’s something going on that I don’t understand. Pharr introduces a whole bunch of tenses all at once, and I’m having trouble deciphering it all. The tenses that are supposed to have been introduced so far are the present, imperfect, future, and aorist. It may be that there’s something I’m not understanding about the organization of the book, since in this lesson it seems like he expects the student to know things that aren’t introduced very explicitly, or maybe they’re in the grammar reference in the back of the book.
For εἶπον he gives a cross-reference from the exercise to a later section where it’s listed like this: εἴρω, ἐρέω, εἶπον (ἔειπον). I think this means that εἶπον is the second aorist of εἴρω, but as far as I can tell he’s never introduced the second aorist except to say that it exists, and he doesn’t seem to have given a set of endings for it. I’m also not sure what the parenthetical (ἔειπον) means. I’m guessing that this is either an alternative form or an indication that εἶπον is a contracted form of this longer form.
Hylander wrote:
Maybe “By far the best in Ilion said those things to Priam but he dishonored them.”
I see, that makes sense of the τὰ, which I was confused about, although it’s a little weird because there’s no antecedent.
Would εἴρω + acc. + dat. mean the dative noun, as opposed to ?
Is there more to this? Out of context it doesn’t make much sense.
No, there’s no context. It’s just a practice sentence.