The Greek is the/a suggested solution for the second English sentence. I read that “ δὲ καὶ” has the force of “again” . Perhaps this is used here to suggest that the Amazons have regained their normal mode of transport. I think it’s unlikely.
Is it simply an alternative to τε καὶ?
I wonder if wiser heads could explain why “ δὲ καὶ” was used.
would you consider “ …ἀϕικόμεναι δὲ ἵππους εὑροῦσαι καὶ πρὸς τοὺς Σκύθας ἐμαχέσαντο less good Greek?
I no longer have the book, but as to ἀϕικόμεναι δὲ καὶ ἵππους εὑροῦσαι …, the δε just connects this sentence with the previous one, while the και connects the two participles, putting them an an equal syntactical footing (“having arrived and having found …”).
τε is different from δέ. δέ can be adversative, and τε usually connects lesser units than whole sentences: Α τε και Β “both A and B.”
Your ἀϕικόμεναι δὲ ἵππους εὑροῦσαι would subordinate one of the participles to the other—presumably not what’s intended; they’d better be coordinated by και, as in the first example. And in καὶ πρὸς τοὺς Σκύθας ἐμαχέσαντο the και (prepositive as always) would mean they actually/even/also fought against the Scythians—again clearly not what’s intended.
Don’t know if this helps at all. I’m sure you know all this anyway.
Right, Peter. With δε και the particles function independently of one another (and και δε would be nonsensical). Do let me know if you come across any anomalies.
Michael
I got the idea they can be linked from Denniston (p 305) who says “ δὲ καὶ” (καὶ often approximating in sense to αυ)… . But clearly you are right here δὲ connecting to the previous sentence and καὶ connecting the participles. Thanks again.