In Stephanus I came across what looks like a rare usage of subjunctive: ἔιτε ῥήματα ὦσιν ἔιτε μετοχαὶ p. 3 line 21, which I translate as ‘be they verbs or participles’. The subj seems to be rare after eite, LS gives without quoting only one example Stob., 3., 1., 105. I wanted to look up this passage to see whether the subjunctive is used with an or without like in Stephanus. However, I found that Stob 3 1 ends with 103… so is it an error in LS? This is the link I used: https://books.google.ca/books?id=ML4NAAAAIAAJ&printsec=frontcover&redir_esc=y#v=onepage&q&f=false
Stob., 3., 1., 105 can be found here:
https://books.google.com/books?id=WLkNAAAAIAAJ&pg=PA55#v=onepage&q&f=false
It’s not to be trusted in either text. Stephanus (Steph. of Alexandria) knew his classical Greek extremely well and normally used it, and I think something may be amiss there, right at the opening of his exegetical paraphrase. Stobaeus’ quote is unarguably corrupt and uncertainly amended (the Doric αἴτε is quite correct however, this being Archytas of Tarentum).
Certainly there are syntactical rarities in certain texts, but they usually collapse under examination.