Hi, I am a bit confused about how to translate this sentence into Latin…
We run home.
I know that the word “run” in this sentence is intransitive so it doesn’t take a direct object. So in Latin what case would “home” be in? In English, what would the function of “home” be classified as?
Thank you…
In both languages, the respective words, “home” and domum, would be best classified as adverbs.
You might make a case that the Latin word is a noun in the accusative case (and that domo, “from home” is a noun in the ablative case), just as the accusative case of cities and islands without preposition is ordinarily used for “motion to” and the ablative without preposition for “motion from”. However, the function of domum and domo is adverbial. Used this way, domum is not a direct object of an intransitive verb, as you recognize.
My answer was incorrect, but the other users give a great answer!
(Edited)
I think it would most definitely take a direct result object.
This is, however, with the preposition “ad,” meaning “to” or “towards.”
Domus, -ūs, would take the accusative because ad is a preposition.
Currimus (currō, currere, to run) ad domum.
Domum and domo don’t take a preposition. Although derived from nouns, they behave like adverbs.
I’m sorry to be harsh, but please don’t spread misinformation. There are more than one erroneous assertions in your post. You are at a very elementary stage in Latin, and you shouldn’t be responding to questions raised by others about Latin grammar.
I’m sorry, I won’t post answers again that I’m not sure of.