ἐγείρω , I wake X up;
middle, I wake up, - ἐγείρ-ο-μαι
[ἐγερε-]
ἐγερῶ = I will wake up （fut ind act 1st sg）
Is there a future tense here? Because I can’t find it ἐγεροῦμαι
thank you
You mean if there’s an active future? It does happen, in a few semantic fields (verbs of movement, for instance), that a regular verb with an active present has no active future, only middle and passive. ἀκούω only has ἀκούσομαι (and ἀκουσθήσομαι). However, I don’t know of any reverse phenomenon where a normal verb has only an active future.
As for ἐγερῶ itself, it’s a normal contract future. I assume you are confused because the dictionaries only show that active form, but not the passive. But remember that ancient Greek is a corpus language and not all forms are attested in the corpus. That does not mean they never existed in the first place. It’s not infrequent that even whole tenses were never once attested.
(I think that he was asking about the future when not active.)
LSJ has: “fut. ἐγερθήσομαι Babr.49.3 (also fut. Med. ἐγεροῦμαι dub. in Polyaen.1.30.5)”
I also see ἐγερθήσ- forms all over in the LXX and NT. The only ἐγεροῦ- middle future form in TLG seems to be in the Sibylline Oracles.
Thank you very much. I remember seeing the question about the future tense before, but you told me the details
Great. It’s more intuitive to quote examples. I see，Thank you very much
English intransitive “to wake up” generally corresponds to Greek εγειρομαι, which is apparently passive, rather than middle (though the form is the same). So usually the aorist would be ἠγέρθην and the future would be ἐγερθήσομαι, as Joel noted. However, there’s a middle aorist form ἠγρόμην/ἔγρετο and the intransitive perfect is usually active in form, ἐγρήγορα, “I’m awake.” As is not unusual with Greek verbs, this one has a luxuriant proliferation of alternative forms.
http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.04.0057%3Aentry%3De)gei%2Frw