here we have the verb ειπω whose stem ειπ- transforms from aorist of the verb λεγω,but there is parallel stem λεγ-. Is there any difference between the two? AND,both of them have theire own form of present tense. Why?
the phrase:αγαθον γα? η ελευθε?ια. why the gender of predicative adjective needn’t accord with the subject?
Where did you find the phrase “αγαθον γα? η ελευθε?ια”?
As to your other question, εἶπον is considered to be a different verb from λέγω. However εἶπον is a highly irregular verb in that it has lost is present tense, though it still has a future (??έω, ??ῶ) and perfect (εἴ?ηκα) tense. The form "εἴπω“ simply does not exist in Ancient Greek (or at least not as a first person singular present). The present tense is substituted by similar verbs such as φήμι and λέγω, among other verbs depending on the context.
A parralel in English is the verb “to wend”. If you use the present tense of “wend” in Modern English - such as “She wends to the market”, at best you will sound old-fashioned, and and worst you will be incomprehensible. But when we use the past tense of “to wend” - “She went to the market”, it is considered perfectly normal Modern English. Thus “wend” is a bit like εἶπον, in Greek, though to be fair in Engtlish “wend” and “go” have completely merged, whereas in Greek there isn’t a clean merger.
thank u,perispomenon,that’s helpful and reasonable
and to GlottalGreekGeek:
the phrase comes from READING GREEK ,page 13,in row 8. And there, we can also find “ει’πέ μοι”（tell me）, it is imperative present. It confused me.I wonder what’s its form of first person singluar,λεγω or ειπω?? Farther more, the word ιδεα and ειδος, whether they come from the same verb ο?αω??
If it is troublesome.would you (or any otherone here)can leave me a bibliography about this? remercie vous par avance.
)))))))
medea they don’t come from ο?άω. They come from the Hindoeuropean root *weid (same root where video comes from for example). We don’t really know if there was a verb *Fειδω since we have never found it written somewhere.
We got a mix of the two verbs so to speak (although there’s no proof there WAS a second verb ) Think of two verbs in your language that have the same or similar meaning. As time passes people see them as identical. They use some times of one of the verb and some of the other. Instead of saying you have two with only some types, it’s easier to think that you have one verb rather irregular.
Hope that makes some sense. I will try again when I have more time
finally,we focus on the last problem: ειδος and ιδεα come from which word etymologically? You’d agree that “Eίδος” comes from the same root as many hindoeuropean languages’ term for “see”,wouldn’t u ?? Isn’t ο?αω means “see”?? thus, “weid” although it means “see”, but which language it is? (Actually, chinese is my mother language)
By the way, which etymological dictionary is authoritative? and if you noticed that the problem attaches to Platonism and know sth more, would u please give me a bibliography about it? Thanx a lot
Thank you, Annis. I’ll try to find that dictionary:))) a propos~~ vous parlez chinois?
Didymus, Thank you all the same. but I think ειπε is not the aorist imp…Beacause of its term. -ε. .It is the term of imp. present s…And from the context, as a dialogue, it shouldn’t be aorist:).
εἰπέ μοι is aorist active imperative singular: “tell me!” It is what is known as a “strong” or a “second” aorist imperative. You may not yet have come across the strong aorist. If your textbook has grammatical tables at the back, take a look at the difference between the strong and weak aorists. That should clarify things for you a bit.
As to the “context” question of why it is aorist and not present imperative, obviously without the book in front of me I can’t answer for sure. Nevertheless, I can be almost certain. The aorist and the present imperatives differ with regard to aspect, not time. An aorist imperative essentially represents a one-time (“simple”) action, whereas a present essentially represents an ongoing (“continuous”) action. Thus the speaker in the dialogue is commanding someone to tell him something one time, not repeatedly.
An example:
A: I have a secret.
B: Tell me! (εἰπέ μοι)
Again, for more information look up “aspect” in the index of your textbook. If after referring to your textbook you’re unclear on any of this, I can provide a little more detail and some more examples.
Greek verb aspect is always exciting. We have a few longer discussions about that on Textkit: Notes on the Aorist Morphology, Greek Aspect, Part I, Greek Aspect, Part II.
vous avez raison,Didymus,thank u alot, I nearly forget the problem about Aspect~.Yes , u r quite right. -ε is also the term of aorist imp. .just like imp..present…~that blinded me~
Thank u Annis for those information. And u r the first one I know who study 文言. what’s ur specialty? hope that not to be liberty.