Dear all,
I just translated some passages about Hannibal’s end:
[1] Carthaginiensis (dono) regis castellum habebat atque ibi se tenebat. Non ignorabat et Romanorum odium permagnum et regis perfidiam.
= The Carthaginian [namely Hannibal] was keeping stronghold of king [namely Prusias of Bythinia] (for offering)…
Dono [present, gift, offering] = ablative of cause, it means that Hannibal kept stronghold to pay for King Prusias cause Prusias has allowed him to come to his kingdom, right?
[2] Itaque cunctis in partibus castelli fores (ad effugiendum) paratas habebat
= Therefore he kept all fleeing gates of stronghold in all directions to be ready <=> he opened all the gates, that made the Roman besiege him very easy, right?
Effugiendum = future passive participle, here it was used as an accusative noun, right?
Cause all the partciple can be used as an adjective or a noun, so when using it that way, is there any rule that regulate the particular use of every type of participle? Or writers can use what they like
For example: the verb effugere will have present participle, past participle, and future participle, could we select one randomly?
Sincerely yours,