φημί, ἐὰν οἵ γ᾽ ἐπιόντες αὐτῇ [sc. τῇ ῥητορικῇ] λόγοι μαρτυρῶσιν εἶναι τέχνῃ. ὥσπερ γὰρ ἀκούειν δοκῶ τινων προσιόντων καὶ διαμαρτυρομένων λόγων, ὅτι ψεύδεται καὶ οὐκ ἔστι τέχνη ἀλλ᾽ ἄτεχνος τριβή·…
On traditional readings, ἐπιόντες is taken here to be the form of ἐπιέναι. I’m wondering, why could not it be, rather, the form of ἐπεῖναι (in the sense "to be attached to…; LSV A.I.2) (the λόγοι mentioned right after would, of course, on this reading, differ from τινων προσιόντων in the next line).
Thanks in advance for any thoughts.
Wouldn’t that be ἐπόντες?
Right! Thanks. I was misled by Perseus. http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/morph?l=epiontes&la=greek#Perseus:text:1999.04.0057:entry=e