Origins of Plural Neuter with Singular Verb

Greek Learning Greek
1

I was curious about why Greek (or just Attic?) tends to use singular verbs with neuter plural nouns, which is when I found this: http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.04.0007%3Apart%3D4%3Achapter%3D34%3Asection%3D61%3Asubsection%3D69

But this made me wonder: is there, perhaps, a longer story to be told about the original “collective meaning” that these nouns once had?

2

I found this explanation: “This agreement is also found in Hittite and Old Avestan, and is likely to be a grammaticalization of the tendency for groups of inanimate/non-human entities to be treated as collectives.” https://forum.wordreference.com/threads/classical-greek-neuters-plural.2345839/