I have a question about the form omnium nostrum. E.g. communis omnium nostrum patria. While the meaning is perfectly clear-the common fatherland of all of us-the use of nostrum here seems to contradict how one normally uses omniswithnos.
Allen and Greenough use omnium nostrum as an example of how nostrum-the genitive of the pronoun nos-is only used partitively. (143. b) However, Allen and Greenough elsewhere also state that you never use words that denote the whole with a partitive genitive-they even use as an example that “all of us” in latin would be omnes nos and not omnes nostrum What’s going on here?
If omnium isn’t a substantive adjective with the partitive nostrum, is it being used as simple adjective? If so, wouldn’t that violate the rule that Latin uses the adjective noster, nostra, nostrum for possession and not the genitive form of the pronoun nos?
I imagine it must be some sort of weird exception, but I can’t find any discussion of it. Any help would be much appreciated especially if you could point me to a source that discusses it
