Hey guys, it’s winter break for me right now, and I’m doing some Latin translations to sharpen my skills for the upcoming semester. Usually Wheelock’s answers all my questions for me, but not this time.
In the sentence: Sumus sapientores illis, quod nos naturam esse optimam ducem scimus.
(Working translation: we are wiser than them, because we know nature is the best leader)
Can the ablative be used sans prepositions to work as a comparison? It seems like the only way for that clause to make sense. My other question is why does optimam seem to refer to nature? Wheelocks makes a note of this and says ‘opimam: f. by attraction to the gender of naturan’… What mechanism is this? ‘because we know the best nature is/to be the leader’ doesn’t make much sense.
"why does optimam seem to refer to nature? Wheelocks makes a note of this and says ‘optimam: f. by attraction to the gender of naturam’… "
What Wheelock probably means is that dux is normally masculine, but because natura is feminine, the adjective optimam, which modifies normally masculine dux (and does not modify naturam in this sentence), is “attracted” into the feminine gender. As you recognize, “the best nature is the leader” doesn’t make sense–the sentence must mean “nature is the best leader.”