In pharr paragraph 724 it says: “The masculine form of many adjectives is often used for both masculine and feminine, even in the case of those which have seperate forms for the feminine”.
My question is; Did this continue to happen in later dialects, specifically in koine?
Thank you in advance.
Background
Many adjectives (especially those that are compound) decline the same (often the 2nd declension) for M and F, and like 2nd neuter for N. Sometimes this is spoken of as “adjectives of two terminations” or “two endings.”
So, “deathless” [size=150]ἀθάνατος, ‐ον
[quote author=William Annis link=board=2;threadid=266;start=0#1531 date=1058487802]
So, “deathless” [size=150]ἀθάνατος, ‐ον, because it is a compound (that a- bit at the front, meaning -less, along with the thanatos part), it only has two sets of endings: one for M and F, one for N. Thus, “The Deathless Muses” would be [size=150]αἱ ἀθάνατοι μοῦσαι
[quote author=Bert de Haan link=board=2;threadid=266;start=0#1538 date=1058498699]
[quote author=William Annis link=board=2;threadid=266;start=0#1531 date=1058487802]
Homer regularly gives 2-ending adjectives a first declension feminine form when it suits him to do so. Other poets take similar liberties.
Is this the reason “deathless” is listed with a feminine form?[/quote]
I would say so, yes. In my L&S dictionary it’s listed as a two ending form, but then says, "Epic also [size=150]‐η, ‐ον
Thank you very much!