In Mark 8:17 the words νοειτε and συνιετε forced the Latin and Gothic translators to choose different renderings from the ones they usually choose (νοεω/συνιημι are both translated in all other instances in the NT: Vulgate/Vetus Latina: intellegere /Gothic: frathjan), to avoid the in Mk 8:17 impossible repetition of the standard-translating.
Did the coptic translators faced a comparable problem? (The Horner translation seems to show a difference between North and South, but not knowing any coptic, I cannot judge this).