The end of the Lord’s Prayer in Matthew 6 is:
ⲔⲰ ⲚⲀⲚ ⲈⲂⲞⲖ ⲚⲚⲈⲦⲈⲢⲞⲚ. ⲚⲐⲈ ϨⲰⲰⲚ ⲞⲚ ⲈⲦⲈⲚⲔⲰ ⲈⲂⲞⲖ > ⲚⲚⲈⲦⲈⲞⲨⲚⲦⲀⲚ ⲈⲢⲞⲞⲨ> . ⲚⲄⲦⲘϪⲒⲦⲚ ⲈϨⲞⲨⲚ ⲈⲠⲈⲒⲢⲀⲤⲘⲞⲤ. ⲀⲖⲖⲀ ⲚⲄⲚⲀϨⲘⲈⲚ ⲈⲂⲞⲖ > ϨⲒⲦⲘ ⲠⲠⲞⲚⲎⲢⲞⲤ > > ϪⲈ ⲦⲰⲔ ⲦⲈ ⲦϬⲞⲘ ⲘⲚ ⲠⲈⲞⲞⲨ ϢⲀⲚⲒⲈⲚⲈϨ ϨⲀⲘⲎⲚ. ⲈⲦⲈⲦⲚϢⲀⲚⲔⲰ ⲄⲀⲢ ⲈⲂⲞⲖ ⲚⲚⲢⲰⲘⲈ > ⲚⲚⲈⲨⲚⲞⲂⲈ > ϤⲚⲀⲔⲰ ϨⲰⲰϤ ⲚⲎⲦⲚ ⲈⲂⲞⲖ ⲚϬⲒ ⲠⲈⲦⲚⲈⲒⲰⲦ ⲈⲦϨⲚ ⲘⲠⲎⲨⲈ ⲚⲚⲈⲦⲚⲚⲞⲂⲈ. ⲈⲦⲈⲦⲚⲦⲘⲔⲰ ⲆⲈ ⲈⲂⲞⲖ ⲚⲚⲢⲰⲘⲈ ⲚⲚⲈⲨⲚⲞⲂⲈ ⲚϤⲚⲀⲔⲰ ⲚⲎⲦⲚ ⲀⲚ ⲈⲂⲞⲖ ⲚϬⲒ ⲠⲈⲦⲚⲈⲒⲰⲦ ⲈⲦϨⲚ ⲘⲠⲎⲨⲈ ⲚⲚⲈⲦⲚⲚⲞⲂⲈ.
In Koine Greek, it is:
12 καὶ ἄφες ἡμῖν τὰ ὀφειλήματα ἡμῶν, ὡς καὶ ἡμεῖς [e]ἀφήκαμεν > τοῖς ὀφειλέταις ἡμῶν> · 13 καὶ μὴ εἰσενέγκῃς ἡμᾶς εἰς πειρασμόν, ἀλλὰ ῥῦσαι ἡμᾶς ἀπὸ > τοῦ > > [f]> πονηροῦ> . 14 ἐὰν γὰρ ἀφῆτε τοῖς ἀνθρώποις > τὰ παραπτώματα αὐτῶν> , ἀφήσει καὶ ὑμῖν ὁ πατὴρ ὑμῶν ὁ οὐράνιος. 15 ἐὰν δὲ μὴ ἀφῆτε τοῖς ἀνθρώποις [g]τὰ παραπτώματα αὐτῶν, οὐδὲ ὁ πατὴρ ὑμῶν ἀφήσει τὰ παραπτώματα ὑμῶν. (Including two footnotes indicating alternate text in other sources)
As I understand it, ἀπὸ τοῦ πονηροῦ in Greek is ambiguous in meaning between “from the evil one” and “from evil.” The Coptic version uses ⲈⲂⲞⲖ ϨⲒⲦⲘ ⲠⲠⲞⲚⲎⲢⲞⲤ. Does this choice of the masculine form in Coptic unambiguously indicate the meaning “from the evil one,” since the author could have written ⲈⲂⲞⲖ ϨⲒⲦⲘ ⲠⲠⲞⲚⲎⲢⲞⲚ, using the Greek neuter form of the adjective?
I also see that both the Coptic and Koine Greek have different expressions for the bad behavior to be forgiven. In the English version I grew up with, I think “trespasses” was used for both. The Coptic seems to first address others’ debts to us (ⲚⲈⲦⲈⲞⲨⲚⲦⲀⲚ ⲈⲢⲞⲞⲨ) and then others’ behavior in general through the use of ⲚⲈⲨⲚⲞⲂⲈ (“their sins”). In other words, you are called not only to forgive those indebted to you, but those who sin generally against God or society. Is that a fair reading of the Coptic? I had only considered before that this text in English and Greek addressed bad behavior against you as an individual.