I am a real stickler about pronouncing Latin (and Ancient Greek) as correctly as I can. Just the right quality and length of vowels, just the right elision, just the right pronunciation of gn, bs/bt, s (retracted), z, r, final m (without turning it into a velar nasal), etc.
However, I have come across two different ways of determining which syllables with short vowels followed by consonants are considered “long by position”.
I traditionally learned it this way (as the Bantam New College Latin & English Dictionary: Third Edition states):
A syllable is long . . . if it contains a short vowel followed by x, z, or any two consonants except a mute (b, d, g, p, t, c) follwed by l or r: sax•um, Ma•zentius, mit•tō, cur•sor (such a syllable is said to be > long by position> , but the vowel is pronounced > short
.
This is similar to what the Dickinson College Commentaries say:
A syllable containing a short vowel followed by two consonants (except a mute before l or r) or by a double consonant (x, z) is said to be > long by position> , but the vowel is pronounced > short> .
Henle’s Grammar also rings similar, though with an interesting addition:
A syllable is long if it contains a vowel that is long by nature or a vowel that is followed by two consonants other than a mute (c, g, p, b, t, d) > or f > followed by a liquid (r, l)
So Henle says pretty much the same thing, except that he adds that any short vowel followed by -fr and -fl is still short. It is this convention that I have followed in all my many hours of reading Latin.
However,
A first hint of a challenge to this system came in the Companion book to Familia Rōmāna, which says the following about this topic (in a footnote!):
If a combination of letters could be used to begin a word (like the > sp > in > hi spa ni a> ), those letters are
kept together and go with the following vowel.
This would mean that in a word like asper, the first syllable would be short instead of long! It would be pronounced a•sper instead of as•per! However, this can’t be the case (at least in poetry). Look at the following line of the Aeneid:
ōstia, dīves opum studiīsque asperrima bellī > - > Aeneid > 1.14
According to the meter of dactylic hexameter, the first syllable of asperrima must be long. It must be pronounced as•perrima and NOT a•sperrima.
Okay, so I stick with the first convention. However, I just came across this passage from GILDERSLEEVES itself which leads me to really question my convention:
Any combination of consonants that can begin a word (including > mn> , under Greek influence) belongs to the following vowel ; in other combinations the first consonant belongs to the preceding vowel : > a•sper> , > rough> ; > fau•stus> , > lucky> ; > li•bri> , > books> ; > a•nmis> , > river> .
So according to Gildersleeve, the first syllable of asper IS actually short!
Which method is correct?