Original Sentence:
Mūs rūsticus, impulsus ab urbānō mūre, domō rūsticā ad urbem abiit ut, dūrā vītā relictā, in rēbus iūcundīs cum illō vīveret beātus.
Question:
What is “beātus” describing? Shouldn’t it be “beātē”, “happily”, or “beātius”, “more happily”?
Thanks!
Beatus is an adjective describing the subject of in rēbus iūcundīs cum illō vīveret, which is mus rusticus, of course. It wouldn’t be wrong to use an adverb as you suggest, but it’s perfectly fine as is.
So the English translation would be:
A country mouse, having been persuaded by a city mouse, left (his) countryside home for (the) city so that, (a) harsh life having been left behind, (the) happy (mouse) lived among happy things with that (city mouse).
Correct?
beatus is being used predicatively, so really it has to be translated as an adverb (or a paraphrase employed): “so that…he might live happily with that mouse in pleasant circumstances”.
I see. So is this a case where English and Latin differ in their grammar? It seems that it’s uncommon for English to employ a predicate adjective in a subordinate clause.
Yes, Latin and Greek often use predicative adjectives where English would use adverbs. E.g. He spoke reluctantly/unwillingly = invitus dixit. Cf. He spoke under compulsion = coactus dixit.
Beatus vivo = I live in a state of happiness, I have a blessed/blissful life, I live happily, wo guo xingfu de shenghuo. The adverb is rarely used.
It doesn’t make any difference whether or not it’s in a subordinate clause.
primus dixit = He spoke first, he was the first to speak. But primum dixit = First he spoke (then he did something else).
bene beateque discas
Gratias tibi ago