Wheelock introduces ‘Laocoon, -ontis (m)’ as the character in a story. However in the text, the form ‘Laocoonta’ appears. The -is genitive ending means that it is 3rd declension no? With endings in -em, -is, -i, -e, -es, -um and -ibus. So how can a masculine 3rd decl noun end in ‘-a’?
Following Greek?
oh yeah, i guess that would make sense since the story’s actually a homeric one… but i don’t have the greek text handy to verify.
It’s a Greek noun: see Allen & Greenough sections 81 through 83.
“Greek accusative” was always one of those answers it was fun to pull out of the hat back in the day…
Lisa
Greek nouns? Klewlis, we haven’t encountered them yet have we? Is that another chapter I slept through?
The so-called Greek declension crops up when a Latin writer is using a Greek name or loan word and is trying to look literary. It looks like a declension in Greek, the -a is an accusative if it comes from a third declesion word, but the declension in Latin is a mess and depends on the whim of the writer. The accusative of Aeneas can be Aeanan or Aeneam for example.
This so-called Greek declension also happens to be one of the only Latin declension I’m good at 
. Well ok, the o and a aren’t that bad, but everything else is just too confusing…
no, no, i doubt it’s anywhere in our book. i just know that from my koine greek studies lots of greek names are brought into latin, and vice versa.