Hi,
I’m wondering about the understanding of μὴ δ?ναται ἡ πίστις σῶσαι α?τόν;
Recently I’ve noticed that many modern English translation render "can that faith… or “can such (a) faith…” or even “can this kind of faith…” and I’m wondering what’s the grammatical basis for such translations? I’ve read some sources that talk about an anaphoric use of the definite article, but it would seem to me (which obviously doesn’t mean much) that an anaphoric use would imply a meaning like:
What use is it, my brethren, if someone says he has a certain faith but he has no works? Can the faith save him?
I.e. both uses of πίστις refer to a certain instance of faith. And then it seems that the other option is to take both uses as abstract and have
What use is it, my brethren, if someone says he has faith but he has no works? Can faith save him?
I don’t see how the first use of πίστις can be abstract and the second can refer to the kind of faith. To get that translation wouldn’t you need to have αὕτη ἡ πίστις? Am I wrong here? Are there other examples in NT of the definite article used this way with abstract nouns?