Hi everyone, I came across the following Latin sentence in a Latin primer in which Perseus was inquiring Cepheus, Andromeda’s father, why Andromeda was bound to a rock, ready to be offered to a sea monster:
“Mox meam filiam caram habebit; tum patria et populus servabitur.”
Shouldn’t servabitur be servabantur in this case since the subject of this sentence “patria et populus” is plural ?
The Romans were greatly increased in glory and fortune?
Is passive voice in Latin originals always translated as passive in English OR is the active voice in English sometimes preferred? What’s the rule here?
It’s magnopere, and it means “greatly”. So, “The Romans were greatly increased by glory and fortune.”
Some verbs are deponent, meaning they only have passive forms, but they are translated as active. There are only very few verbs which have both active and passive forms but are only translated actively. Usually that develops from a deponent verb which “acquired” active forms. But it’s very rare.
it lacks the conjuction when, here indicating a intimate relation, better cum + sbj. The arrangment of time is also incorrect, had been seen is prior to the given, therefore the plusquamperfect is required.
But if you have to use a participle, you can use visi but without the sunt (I’m assuming that using a participle means you can’t use compound tenses made up of participles). You’d then just have
Liberi miseri, a rege visi, eo dati sunt.
Also, I don’t think there’s any need to translate “the” into the Latin here.
I guess I am a little uncomfortable since “equus” is masculine but “animal” is a neuter noun, so it feels awkward.
It is perfect. if the predicate and the subject are nouns they do not need to agree in anything except, of course, in case. When both however adimits genre flexion you may want to make them agree inter se, which is not the case.