Is the negative particle ‘οὐ’ to be accented before a question mark?

Hello friends,

A simple one for you again - In completing the reading exercises for unit 11 of my textbook (Hansen and Quinn) I came across something which I could not account for in exercise I. 25. I have typed out the sentence below as best I could using typegreek.com, only omitting any macrons, since it would appear that that site does not allow for them. What struck me as odd with this sentence was the accent on the ‘οὐ’, I was under the impression that this particle did not take an accent unless followed by a enclitic and so this has me baffled. I would be very grateful if somebody on this forum who really knows their Greek could enlighten me as to whether there’s some kind of special rule at play here, which perhaps I accidentally overlooked, and now cannot relocate, in reading through the explanations in my textbook.

καλοῦ ἀξιοῦντες τὴν αἰσχρὰν κακοῦ ἂν ἀξιοῖμεν τὴν σώφρονα, ἢ οὔ;

Thank you for your help!

Regards,
Tom.

http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.04.0007%3Apart%3D1%3Achapter%3D8

ου is a proclitic, a word that is normally attached to, and forms a single unit with, the word that follows (unless that word is an enclitic), and in that case the unit that includes ου takes a single accent. In other words, for purposes of accentuation, ου is treated as a syllable of the word that follows, not as a separate word in itself. But if ου stands alone at the end of a sentence, it has no word to attach itself to, and therefore bears an accent of its own.

See the discussion of proclitics in Smyth above.

Other proclitics generally don’t occur at the end of sentences, but under some very limited circumstances they are accented.

And it makes no difference if it’s a question.

Perfect, just what I wanted to know! Thank you!