infinitive with nominative?

Greek Learning Greek
1

Hi, everybody:
Here is the beginning of a sentence:

Ei gar ousia te^s en hekasto^i arete^s ho heis hyparchein Logos tou THeou me^ amphibeble^tai, ktl.

The meaning is clear, yet I do not understand why “ousia”, “ho”, “heis”, and “Logos” are in the nominative here, rather then in accusative (as the use of the infinitive “hyparchein” seems to me to require). Is there any rule which could explain this?

Many thanks in advance.
A.

2

Obviously, it is a personal construction, see Smyth § 1982. Ho Logos is primarily the subject of amfibeble^tai, thus in the nominative, and also, secondarily, of the infinitive.

Now the meaning is not so clear for me. I understand :

“For, if one does not doubt that the unique Reason of God is the essence of virtue in everyone…”

Can you give the true meaning ? Is it a sentence by Plotinus ? Can you give some reference ? Or the rest of the sentence ?

3

Thanks a lot! This paragraph in Smyth gives exactly the explanation I needed. Somehow this was a lacuna in my background.
You got the meaning right. The text is by St. Maximus, a 7th century theologian. The only edition so far is:
Patrologiae Cursus Completus, Series Graeca, v.91 1081 C-D.

4

Thanks !