I’ve recently become aware of a discussion in NT circles whether or not the “independent imperatival participle” actually exists. To clarify, we are not talking about participles coupled with imperatives which therefore have an imperatival force, such as
Luke 13:32 καὶ εἶπεν αὐτοῖς, Πορευθέντες εἴπατε τῇ ἀλώπεκι ταύτῃ…
Examples of this syntax can be found from Homer onward. Rather, the discussion is about participles not so seemingly connected, such as 1 Pet 2:11-3:12 or Rom 12:9ff.
Now, my question here, does anyone know of any such discussion in classical circles? Any examples of an “IIP?” Or is this an example of the idiosyncrasy of those who spend too much time reading their NT and not enough time in other Greek literature?
I’m to write a a review of a book that purports to demonstrate that the participles in 1st Peter are not such an independent usage, and looking for a broader perspective.
We had 1 Peter in our church readings after Easter this year, and I remember how disconcordant the English translation (ESV?, NIV?) with imperatives struck me to the ear as I followed the Greek. Of course – I recall thinking at the time – there’s no other obvious way to translate it in English. But reading this thread, I had the same thought about imperative adjectives that Philo did, although my version was going to be a snarky joke about new fields of possible NT study. So happily he foiled me.
I took a look in Kühner (though nowhere else) for some discussion about participles in imperative sentences, but found nothing obvious.
Or is this an example of the idiosyncrasy of those who spend too much time reading their NT and not enough time in other Greek literature?