In chapter seven of Thrasymachus:
διαλέγονται ὥσπερ ἀεὶ ὅ τε Θρασύμαχος καὶ ὁ Αἰακός.
I am struggling to fit ὅ in my translation. I read that in the accusative ὅ τε can function like ὁτι.
I understand that it is saying “Thrasymachus and Aiakos are talking like always.” How does the ὅ fit?
In Greek you use an article in front of a proper noun. The ‘τε’ is part of ‘τε… καὶ’ – both x and y.
Thanks! That would make a lot of sense. But why then is there an accute? Isn’t ὅ a relative pronoun and ὁ is the definite article.
τε is enclitic. As such it has no accent of its own but attaches itself to the end of the preceding word and gives it an accent (accentual rules permitting), as in e.g. ἄνθρωπός τις, a man (or woman).
Here ὁ is just the definite article (common with names, as Mark said) but has acquired an acute accent thanks tο the following τε.
Ah! Beautiful. Thank you!