Something I haven’t figured out. In Orberg LLPSI he has. ‘Charta ex papyro efficitur, id est ex alta herba quae in Aegypto apud Nilum flumen reperitur’
Is ‘Id’ always used to refer to a thing as opposed to a person, regardless of the gender of the noun, which ‘id’ stands in for? If we have Is, Ea, Id then why don’t we say ‘Ea ex alta herba quae in Aegypto…’ - given that Papyrus is feminine (at least in Orberg)? Is ‘Id’ always a thing even when that thing is a feminine or masculine thing?
Think of “id est” as an idiom for “in other words”. The “id” here doesn’t actually refer to a noun.
“Paper is made from papyrus; in other words, from tall grass which is found in Egypt along the Nile.”
Id est ut dicis. Latinè “id est” ut “i.e.,” abbreviatio et anglicè dicitur.
It’s as you say. In English “i.e.,” (pro collocatio “id est” latina) is what it means, “that is”.
Thanks guys. I have a guilty feeling you’ve explained this to me before… so it’s really a phrase ‘it is’ Id est..
But could you write: ‘Ea ex alta herba quae in Aegypto apud’ ?
A feminine pronoun is used to replace a feminine noun, a masculine pronoun to replace a masculine noun, whether person or not. So, yes, you would say: “Ea efficitur ex alta herba…”