he came to his own (τὰ ἴδια) John 1:11

Greek Koine and Biblical and Medieval Greek
1

Was wondering what is the significance of the change of ‘to his own’ might be in the following verse:

εἰς τὰ ἴδια ἦλθεν, καὶ οἱ ἴδιοι αὐτὸν οὐ παρέλαβον.

what’s the significance of the change from (neuter) to (masculine) “he came to his own but his own did not recognize him”?

Blessings

2

τὰ ἴδια denotes “his own country”/“his own hometown”, and οἱ ἴδιοι refers specifically to his “own people,” hence the masculine.

3

The neuter plural, lit. “his own things” refers to what is his in the broadest sense, the masculine plural refers specifically to “his own people.”