Greetings,
I think I’ve managed to reason out a solution to my own question - but I’m posting here in a search for confirmation - just in case.
After working very hard to ensure that I truly understand my first two chapters of Wheelock, I dove into the first of 38 Latin Stories. While understanding the tale was simple - I wanted to be sure that I was really grasping why the words meant what they did - so I went through sentence by sentence identifying cases etc.
I got as far as “Prometheus est vir magnae sapientiae;”.
If “Epimetheus est vir sine sapientia” = “… a man without wisdom” then why wasn’t “Prometheus est vir magna sapientia;” or “… a man with great wisdom”?
If common sense eliminates plural Nomative and the singular Dative - that leaves me with Genitive. So, after all of that, here comes my question: (Ready?)
Can I understand my trouble sentence to mean that “Prometheus is a man of great wisdom”? I’ve drilled Genitive = possession into my head - but it looks like I’ve already come across a situation where that’s limiting true understanding. After all, in English we don’t really think that a man of great wisdom is possessed by the wisdom as much as we think that the wisdom is possessed by the man.
Any thoughts are appreciated,
Kate
(possessed by ignorance)