Sorry, my Spanish isn’t good enough to respond in that language. But you seem to know English, as your post in the Koine section indicates.
The perfect imperative is not common in Greek, but I think the answer to your question about the perfect imperative τέτλαθι is in Smyth’s Greek Grammar, sec. 1947 (I added the bolding):
‘Intensive’ Perfect.—Many perfects seem to denote an action rather than a state resulting from an action, and to be equivalent to strengthened presents. These are often called intensive perfects.
Such are: verbs of the senses (δέδορκα gaze, πέφρι_κα shudder), of sustained sound (κέκρα_γα bawl, λέληκα shout, βέβρυ_χα roar), > of emotion > (πεφόβημαι am filled with alarm, γέγηθα am glad, μέμηλε cares for), of gesture (κέχηνα keep the mouth agape), and many others (σεσί_γηκα am still, etc.).
a. But most if not all of the verbs in question may be regarded as true perfects, i.e. they denote a mental or physical state resulting from the accomplishment of the action; thus, πέφρι_κα I have shuddered and am now in a state of shuddering.
b. Certain verbs tend to appear in the perfect for emphasis: τέθνηκα am dead, ἀπόλωλα perish, πέπρα_κα sell (have sold).
http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Smyth+grammar+1947&fromdoc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.04.0007
In the specific case of the verb τλάω, the Liddell-Scott-Jones Greek Lexicon notes:
*τλάω , never found in pres. (exc. in very late writers, as Tz.H. 9.133), this tense being supplied by the pf. τέτλαμεν, etc., or by τολμάω:
http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.04.0057%3Aentry%3Dtla%2Fw
I hope this answers your question.