The following sentence appears in LL capt. xv
Diodorus enim magister severus est, qui discipulos suos virga verberat; eo modo magister severus discipulos improbos punire solet.
My question encompases the last part of the sentence.
My tanslation can be rendered as follows
By this way the harsh teacher customarily punishes bad students
or In this way the harsh teacher is in the habit of punishing bad students.
My question is is the “of” relationship for the accusative with the infinitive correct?" If so what verbs is it used with and how can I tell the difference between when the of relationship is required and when it is not?
or In this way the harsh teacher is in the habit of punishing bad students.
My question is is the “of” relationship for the accusative with the infinitive correct?" If so what verbs is it used with and how can I tell the difference between when the of relationship is required and when it is not?
Notice that in this translation you are changing the class of the word form a verb in latin that requires a accusative into a noun that is accompanied by a prepositional regency. Such is recquired because english has no true verb that renders the same as solet, at least as my diccionaty tells me 
. Therefore you have to appeal to a circumloquium.
Such rendering of “of” for the accusative is appropriate only for that reason and no other.
quod mihi dolet…pars tergi inferior in qua sedere soleo.?
I get the sense but I can’t seem to make it out please explain this sentence.
quod mihi dolet…pars tergi inferior in qua sedere soleo
He is saying thet he can’t sit because that inferior part of his back that he has the habit to use to sit is hurting/causing him pain. (For some afectation he does not want to say ass.)
That’s a english translation.
A litteral
Because it pains me… the inferior part of my back on which I have the habit to sit.