Salvete,
I am currently on the subjunctive and trying to figure out the translation for Q 4:
The Gauls wage many wars to free their fatherland from slavery.
The answer gives the following response:
Galli bella multa gerunt ut patriam suam [a] servitute liberent.
Why was the the conjunctive “ut” used instead of the relative pronoun “qui”.
And if the relative pronoun can be used, would it be qui (the nominative masculine plural since, in the relative clause, it takes the place of Galli which is masc. plural of the second declension)
Many thanks.
Hi,
I’d say because “ut” is the main way to express a purpose (at least for non-negative purpose clauses), and it seems to me that is especially true when the verb in the purpose clause has the same subject as the main verb, as in this case.
In Allen & Greenough’s grammar, they say
The usual way of expressing purpose is by > ut > (negative > ne> ), unless the purpose is > closely connected with some one word> , in which case a relative is more common:
That’s probably not the most helpful explanation, but it’s something that you’ll pick up after more exposure, but “ut” is more common.
And if the relative pronoun can be used, would it be qui (the nominative masculine plural since, in the relative clause, it takes the place of Galli which is masc. plural of the second declension)
Yes, exactly (and of course it would be nominative because it would be the subject of liberent).