Hi,
I’m reading these days some stories from ‘Fabulae Syrae’, a book written by Luigi Miraglia. Today I found this locum, which I couldn’t understand well enough. I tried to render it in (into?) English, in order to ask you this question, but my writing skills are so bad that I wanted to cry.
It says: “Daphne, filia Penei, qui deus cuiusdam fluminis erat, primus amor fuit Apollinis; qui tamen, etiam si puellae cupiditate fere consumebatur, ab ea ut amaretur efficere non poterat: namque puella eum oderat atque fugiebat”.
I know that ‘etiam si’ means ‘even if’ or ‘although’; also, ‘fere’ is an adverb which means something such as ‘usually’, ‘most of the time’. The verb ‘consumebatur’ is written in its passive form, so ‘cupiditate’, an ablative, could be its agent. I thought, then, that ‘puellae’ could be a genitive modifying ‘cupiditate’.
But I don’t know how to put all these words together. Maybe: ‘Who nevertheless, even if most of the time was consumed by the desire of the girl’… Agh, that’s horrible. I’m sorry.
I’m not trying, though, to render the text in(to) English, but to understand it in Latin. Unfortunately, I can’t understand this line. Hopefully, a translation will shed some light on its meaning.
Also, here’s another passage: ‘Ne laudes meas cupiveris, neve posthac talibus armis usus sis’.
I tried to write the same line with the indicative (ne + coniunctivus perfecti → noli/te + infinitivus praesentis activi), but I’m not that sure.
“Noli laudes meas cupere nec (?) posthac talibus armis uti (usus esse?)”.
My question being: he (the writer) uses ‘neve’ in order to join two clauses of ‘ne + coniunctivus perfecti’?
“Two clauses of”. Agh. I hate my English. Poor English. Poonglish. I’m feeling so embarrassed.
Thank you all…