I notice that as of van Thiel and West (at least), the article ὁ ἡ begins to get accents outside of relative use. For example, ὁ γὰρ βασιλῆϊ χολωθεὶς becomes ὃ γὰρ… They continue the same throughout.
This isn’t justified by the Venetius practice, and earlier editions like Leaf and the OCT do not have this. So I wonder where van Thiel and West get it from?
Chandler cites a long list of grammarians who claim that the article really was accented, starting with John Philoponus (John of Alexandria, John the Grammarian), whose commentary on De Anima I’ve been reading a bit lately, with Constantine. Anyway, Philoponus says in Praecepta tonica 101 (“22. 26” in Chandler) that the grammarians claimed that all the articles were accented: Πᾶν ἄρθρον ὀξύνεται χωρὶς τῶν γενικῶν καὶ δοτικῶν. This does not appear to apply specifically to Homer.
But given that this new (?) practice starts with van Thiel (??), I suppose there must be something in a scholium about it. But I can’t find it.
Chandler says on the subject that, “one cannot help wishing that editors would once for all make up their minds as to the principles on which they mean to accent their Greek.”